Was the Healing of the Crippled Man in Acts 3 Based on Peter’s Authority or on a Special Manifestation of the Spirit?

Acts 3:16:
And his name through faith in his name hath made this man strong, whom ye see and know: yea, the faith which is by him hath given him this perfect soundness in the presence of you all.

The issue is what “the faith which is by Him” means.  Does it mean that this a case of “special faith” given by Jesus as a gift of the Spirit in this particular case?

I’ve heard that conclusion proposed, particularly with the reasoning that they must have passed this beggar before and not done anything, though that is speculation because the Bible never states that.  I can’t say that I could rule it out, but some other features of the passage in question would tend to make me conclude that this action was based on known authority rather than on a particular manifestation of the Spirit.

First, Peter told the man to look at himself and John.  This would indicate that he was acting based on something that he knew he had rather than on the possibility of a special manifestation of the Spirit.  Peter was already expecting something to happen.  It wasn’t a case where they had to wait until they actually touched the man to see if a special gift would manifest.

Second, Peter said that he gave the man such as he had.  We never “have” the gifts of the Spirit in the sense that we can control their operation, so the “special manifestation” conclusion would not seem to fit what Peter said.

Third, Peter did not attribute the miracle to special one-time faith given by the Holy Spirit, but rather to Jesus’ name, through faith in His name.  Faith in His name is something that CAN be exercised at any time without waiting on the Holy Spirit.  The church has the right to use His name.  For example, in Mark 16:17, Jesus did NOT say that believers would pray and ask God to cast out demons. He said that they would cast out demons in His name, implying that He had already given them the pre-approval to invoke His name at will when a need presented itself.

Fourth, if this were a spiritual gift, Paul’s depiction of the gift of faith is faith given by the Spirit.  But Peter did not say that “the faith that is by the Holy Spirit” had given the man soundness, but rather “the faith that is by Him (referring to Jesus).”  This would indicate faith that belongs to everyone as opposed to special faith by the Holy Spirit.  But if this faith were “by Him,” wouldn’t that mean that it WASN’T Peter’s normal faith?  That is the basis for concluding that it was a special manifestation, but I don’t see that as proof because Jesus is, after all, “the Author and Finisher of our faith” (Hebrews 12:2), which I think is how Peter meant it.